Can you prove without direct empirical data that men are polygynous? Let's take a look, shall we?
Let's assume that a hypothetical monogamous couple procreates as often as is physically possible. How many children can they produce?
A human female hits puberty at about age 10-14. They hit menopause in their 50s, in modernity, but a high-stress lifestyle, like the ancestral environment, drives this age much earlier. For convenience, we'll use age fifty. That gives the woman a solid forty years as a baby factory.Let's assume that a hypothetical monogamous couple procreates as often as is physically possible. How many children can they produce?
The average human woman produces about 400 fertile eggs during her lifetime. However, a human baby takes 9 months to gestate, limiting the actual number of children which she can have. Doing the math, this works out to 50 children a woman can potentially have in her lifetime, plus some change.
Men produce over 500 billion sperm in their lifetime.
One ejaculation contains roughly 40 million sperm, though this varies wildly.
That's approx 12,500 full ejaculations that a man can do in his lifetime.
For a promiscuous man, we'll call each ejaculation a potential child.
So a man can sire perhaps 10,000 children in his lifetime, if he takes maximum advantage of his output.
(The actual number here would be much higher, since if you're active enough, each ejaculate would contain less sperm, but your incidence of pregnancy would be relatively unaffected. Ghengis Khan, for instance, kept a harem of several thousand women and probably exceeded this quota of offspring.)
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